provide your sources for making the claim that in Jewish culture the phrase "son of <mother>" was ever used regarding another Jew.The Bible is my source. Jesse and David, from Naomi, Ruth 4:17. In any event. Jesus was also called son of Joseph. Luke 1:27 specifically calls out Joseph as the descendant of David and only mentions Mary as "the virgin".
You've read the book, right? I only ask because, since you said you are hoping to be a NT scholar, you've several time made claims about the Bible that are demonstrably wrong.
also, in Jewish culture, if the father was unknown, this would have made it a derogatory reference to his illigitimacy.Please provide your citation by actual scholars.
Your reference in Ruth is not an example of the same expression.
they said as a fact, "a son has been born to Naomi" they did not call the boy, "Obed son of Naomi"
"a son has been born to Naomi" in Hebrew is, " lə·nā·‘o·mî bên" it's just words stating a fact.
However the proper expression x son of x was, when a male, always like this, "Jesus son of Joseph" or "Yeshua ben-Yosef". I assume you can see the distinction here.
Thus the biblical reference you provided doesn't even apply. As to my scholarly references asserting this custom, I listed them in the other thread:
Daily Life in the Times of Jesus by Henri Daniel Rops
Lord Jesus Christ - Devotion to Jesus in Earliest Christianity.
Would you like the page number and a link to purchase for your own study?
As to your Lukan reference, we are discussing mark. Thus it has no baring. Unlike mark, Luke includes a birth account. It is a separate subject.